Identify who is responsible for the activity "Facilitate
Process Institutionalization"
1. Everyone
in the project staff
2. Project Manager
3.
Account
Quality Partner
4. Senior
Management
Which of the following activities is NOT owned by PM?
1. Conduct
client satisfaction survey
2.
Perform
Root cause analysis
3. Publish Account Status Report
4. Establish
estimates
Identify what will NOT be considered as innovation
1.
New
practices brought in to comply with a new model or standard to cater to the
business
2. Initiatives with High cost of definition and implementation
3. Initiatives
with Organizational Impact
4. Initiatives
involved with Significant gains
According to GIP, "Remark" is a status assigned to the QA Test Defect
when
1. The
defect is rejected as "not reproducible" by the Development team
2.
The
defect is raised by the QA Test team
3.
The defect is rejected as
"duplicate" by the Development team
4.
The defect is fixed by the Development
Team
A project manager decides to identify and map dependent
requirements. Which artifact would be an output of this?
1.
BRS Log
2.
Business Requirement Specification
3.
Detail Software Requirement
Specification
4.
Scope
and Traceability Matrix
Sumathy is the
Quality Partner for a Project. What is Smithy’s
role in developing the PTR for the project?
1. Modifies
the PTR
2. Maintain
PTR
3.
Review
PTR
4. Publish
the PTR
What is the BEST method for preparation of User Manual?
1. Prepared
by End User with the help of the team
2. Prepared
by Project Sponsor with help of the Business Analyst
3. Prepared
by the Technical Lead in consultation with the project manager
4.
Prepared
by the technical writer with inputs from the team
Due to time
constraint the team has only limited time to close comments arising out of
the work product audit. What should be
the BEST consideration to identify the subset of comments for closure?
1. All comments whose impact on
non-implementation is high needs to be closed
2. All comments excluding comments
related to code documentation need to be closed
3. All comments that are related to
end user reports need to be closed
4. All comments
that are related to processing codes need to be fixed
Risk
management planning encompasses all of the following EXCEPT
1.
Deciding
the risk exposure threshold values beyond which the risks will be escalated
2.
Identifying risks and developing
responses
3.
Deciding on the plan for risk
management
4.
Deciding risk management process
during the project execution
Identify the CORRECT statement with respect to Physical Configuration Audits
1.
Normally conducted by the tech lead
2.
Optional for small development
projects
3. Conducted prior to the release of a
baseline
4.
Mandatory for all projects.
The Process
Tailoring Record, an artifact of the Environment Discipline is optional for
which type of Project
A. Small Enhancement Project
B. Maintenance Project
C. Development Projects
D. SQA Projects
1.
A, B and D
2.
All client project require PTR
3. Only A
4.
B and C
12. While
performing the Detailed Design of a system, significant number of requirement
related changes arise. What could have BEST avoided this situation?
1.
SARB review should have been
done on requirements
2.
Non-functional requirements should
have been captured better
3.
System Analysis should have considered
preliminary design implication
4. Requirements should have been reviewed by
the technical architect
13. Test report is developed by
1. Test Engineer
2. Design Architect
3. Test Lead
4. Test Lead and Test Engineer
14. Identify the
discipline on which the integrity of the "Integrate System" is
PRIMARILY dependent on
1.
Project Management
2. Implementation
3.
Configuration Management
4.
Analysis and Design
15. Which among
the list below is the PRIMARY source of the project goals in the QI Sheet?
1.
Project Approach Document
2. Process Performance Baseline (PPB)
3.
Statement of Work (SOW)
4.
Master Services Agreement (MSA)
16. "Defect
to Remark Ratio" metric is a DIRECT indicator of
1.
Capability of the designer / architect
2.
Efficiency of the requirements review
3. Efficiency of the QA Test Team
4.
Effectiveness of defect fixing by the
development team
17. Whoconducts the Inception review in a project?
1.
Account Manager
2.
Project Manager
3. Quality Partner
4.
Team Lead
18. At the end of
an audit, who is responsible for classification of the findings as Major NC /
Minor NC and AFI
1.
The Auditors in consultation with
Account Quality Partner
2. The Auditors as per guidelines provided in
the GIP
3.
Project Manager, Account Owner and
Auditors collectively
4.
The PQA of the project along with the
internal audit team
19. Shyam is the technical architect at Virtusa for an online
assessment system. For encryption of the questionnaire, he decides to opt for a
tool developed by the popular vendor AES. What is the MOST important activity
that shyam is to do next?
1.
He should enter into an escrow
arrangement with AES
2.
He should ensure skills are available
for integration of this tool in the project
3. He should ensure AES incorporation does not
have any legal liability
4.
He should obtain approval to use the
tool from the Project Manager
20. Client
Release Note is mandated for which Client releases?
1.
As requested by the Client
2.
For identified major releases
3. For all Client releases
4.
Only for the initial release
21. Identify what is NOT
a prerequisite for the "Integrate System"
activity
1.
Completion of unit testing for the sub
components
2.
Component availability in
configuration management system
3.
Integration Build Plan
4. Approved Deployment Plan
22. In a typical acceptance plan, with whom should
Execution of acceptance test reside?
1.
Project Manager
2.
Business Quality partner
3. Client
4.
Test Lead
23. Preparation of Configuration Management Plan is the
responsibility of
1.
Configuration Auditor
2. Project Manager
3.
Configuration Manager
4.
All the options
24. What is of LEAST importance as an input to process improvement initiatives
1.
QA Testing reports
2. Team Score Card
3.
Internal Audit Report
4.
Project Risk List
25. A customer
comes back to the project manager informing that the product delivered is not
acceptable. The project manager goes back to the acceptance plan but notices
that the plan was not signed off by the customer, due to which there was rework
on the delivered product to meet client expectations. Which process has failed?
1.
Communication
Management
2.
Requirements Development
3.
Requirements Management
4. Stakeholder Management
26. Suyash is new to Virtusa. He has to choose
the process framework for execution of his project. What would help him in
arriving at the MOST appropriate framework for his
project
1.
GIP PTR template
2.
Contract document
3.
Project Approach Document
4. PTR of similar projects
27.The QA testing
report indicates certain critical errors which have been agreed to by the
Project Team as requiring closure. What is the FIRST step to be undertaken now?
1.
Change Request should be raised for
the agreed defects
2.
The report and its finding should be
discussed in the ATC review
3. Client should be updated on impact if any
on schedule
4.
Client must be updated of
these critical issues
28. One of the
teams just finished a very challenging and unique project with high CDI.
Unfortunately when a similar project came up, the project manager for the
previous project executed had left. No one was aware of what needs to be done
and how, what value adds could be provided to the client. What should have the
PM done to ensure proper preservation of knowledge on project
success/failure/lessons learnt/value add to customer?
1.
Conduct meeting with all stakeholders
and present the project details
2. Create and submit the Project Closure
Report and Project Case Study documents
3.
None of the options
4.
Document project audit results/performance
results
29. What is the PRIMARY consideration while deciding on the build or buy
option
1. Cost Benefit Analysis
2.
Availability of open source utilities
3.
Competency within organization
4.
Time available to cater to the
requirement
30. What is NOT the
intent of the Program Management discipline
1.
To provide management attention to
delivery
2.
To manage resource utilization
3. Conflict resolution within project team
members
4.
To provide necessary trainings
31. Who is
responsible for conducting Contract Compliance review
1.
Delivery Head
2.
BU Quality Partner
3. Account Owner
4.
Project Manager
32. All of the following about Defect Density is true EXCEPT
1.
Has an impact on Productivity of the
team
2.
One of the most important metrics that
determines the state of the project
3.
The higher the defect density, the
more the rework
4. Could have an impact on the size of the
system, the higher the defect density, the greater the size
33. What is NOT a key
criteriafor evaluating adequacy of a requirement statement
1.
Accurate
2.
Verifiable
3. Secure
4.
Simple
34. All these are valid expectation from an
implementation model EXCEPT
1.
The amount of source code is
consistent with the expectation based on the number of design classes
2. Number of implementation layers is less
than ten
3.
The workload for the Implementation
Team is balanced
4.
Unnecessary dependencies on
lower-layer subsystems have been eliminated
35. When should a
Configuration ManagementPlan be available for the project team?
1.
During the Construction Phase
2.
Before the construction phase
3. By beginning of Elaboration Phase ( Early of
Elaboration Phase )
4.
During the Elaboration Phase
36. Management of Acceptance tests is the
activity performed by
1.
Deployment Manager
2.
Team Lead
3.
Project Manager
4. Customer
37. What is the PRIMARY
intent of an account delivery review?
1.
To ensure senior management attention
for high risk items
2. To review and provide management support to
meet delivery
3.
To review projects which have effort
or schedule variances greater than 20%
4.
To provide a platform for knowledge
sharing within an account
38. Sumathy is testing her unit. She has detected
four errors in the first round of testing. She has completed the defect fixing.
What should be the appropriate action to be taken now?
1. Sumathy should subject her unit to another round
of developer testing
2.
Sumathy should request a peer to
perform defect closure testing
3.
Sumathy should test the four test
cases to ensure defects are closed
4.
Sumathy should update the test log for
tracking of defect closure
39. What is NOT
true with respect to Metrics Council
1.
Account owners review PPB
2.
PQA group reviews the metrics
3.
It has participation from PM and above
4. Metrics Council lead is a dedicated person
40. Identify what
is NOT a direct intent of Change Management Process
1. Control of effort variance
2.
Prevent implementation of unauthorized
changes
3.
Ascertaining impact of change
4.
Consistent implementation of approved
change
41. Which of the following are FALSE?
1.
Specification limits are set
by the organization
2. Specification limits can be changed based
on appropriate approvals
3.
Control limits are set by the project
4.
Changing control limits
require approvals
42. Suyash is the Project Manager. A minor NC is
recorded in the project audit regarding absence of certain review report
documentation. Suyash contacts the reviewer and gets the documents prepared.
What is this response best categorized as
1.
Preventive Action
2.
Correction
3.
Closure
4.
Improvement
43. Deployment Plan is BEST prepared in
1. Early Elaboration Phase
2.
After Construction Phase
3.
Transition Phase
4.
Early Construction Phase
Ø The
Deployment Plan is started in the Elaboration phase and is refined in the
Construction phase
44. What is NOT a required input for designing of
User Interface?
1. Business Requirement Specification
2.
Project Engineering Guidelines
3.
UI requirement
specification
4.
Detailed Software Requirement
Specification
45. Identify the attribute that is measured to
evaluate the Knowledge Management process within a project
1. Extent of reusable artifacts and
methods
2.
Schedule Variation
3.
Effort Variation
4.
Client Satisfaction
46. Sumathy is performing a configuration audit
for a project. From where can she find information regarding individuals
authorized for change approval
1.
Project Structure Document
2.
Change Request Log
3.
Team Score Card
4. Configuration Management Plan
47. What is NOT normally contained in an installation guide?
1.
Troubleshooting information
2.
FAQ
3. User Side Operator Details
4.
Contact id for queries
48. A task has an optimistic value of 12 days,
pessimistic value of 20 days. What would be its most likely estimate?
1.
13
2.
Unknown
3. 15
4.
18
49. A website is developed and delivered to a
retail client. The customer comes back informing that the website is as per the
functional requirements agreed upon but the website crashes when more than 500
users login at the same time. This issue could have been prevented if
1. Requirements development was detailed with
complete information on non functional requirements (NFRs)
2.
Product was tested exhaustively
3.
Allocated requirements adhered to the
design
4.
There is no issue as the client did
not specify this requirement
50. Identify the statement that is NOT correct
with respect to PTR
1.
PTR
is frozen at inception phase and used subsequently as guiding principle
2.
PTR is used for internal audit
3.
PTR is owned by the Project Manager
4.
PTR is created in the early inception
Phase
51. What is verification and validation?
1.
Verification is “Reviews” and
Validation is “Testing”
2.
“Build
the product right” and “Build the right product”
3.
Both are reviews/testing but
Validation is internal and verification is external
4.
“Build the right product” and “Build
the product right”
52. Sumathy is
testing her unit. She is using her peer reviewed Developer Test Plan to check
her program. She finds that a critical test mentioned in her test case is not
being met by her unit. She fears this will involve a lot of rework and hence a
delay in delivery. What Sumathy should FIRST do
1.
Sumathy should raise a change request
2.
Sumathy should proceed with the defect
closure
3.
Sumathy should continue to complete
the testing
4.
Sumathy
should understand the impact of this test defect
53. Select the
valid statement regarding the Project Initiation Note
1.
It is issued by the Client on approval
of Project Approach Note
2.
It issued by the Marketing team
communicating sign off on the contract
3.
It is issued by the Account Owner
after the client kick off meeting
4. It is issued by the Senior Management
intimating of Project Start
54. The effort estimate is
derived by
1.
Using the formula – Total
resource*Hours of planned work+ (Buffer)
2. Applying effort to Size estimates of the
project
3.
Applying productivity value
to the size estimates of the project
4.
Using any of the above choices
1. Shyam is the
technical architect for developing a configuration management system. The
system will store identified CI and track their lifecycle. System features are
heavily dependent on the state of the CI at any point in time. What would BEST
help Shyam in detailing the system design?
1.
Use Case Modeling
2. State Chart Diagram
3.
Data Flow Diagrams
4.
Entity Relationship diagrams
2. Shyam is a
technical architect at Virtusa. He has been given some documents by his project
manager as input documents to design. Which document should he refer for
restriction if any on design and technical aspect?
1.
Detailed Software Requirement
Specification
2.
Architecture Document
3. Project Engineering Guideline
4.
Detailed Software Technical design
document
3. Sudha is to lead a project for a client in
Japan. Language constraint is identified as a
key challenge in the requirement gathering phase. What is the MOST effective method to be adopted
1.
Configure extra time for gathering
requirements
2.
Japanese Language training for her key
team members
3. Recruit a local business analyst
4.
Usage of "Use Case
Diagramming Method"
4. What is TRUE
about tailoring a PTR?
1. PTR can be modified during the course of
the project
2.
All Disciplines must be included
3.
PTR is not applicable when Client
templates are being followed
4.
PTR is approved by the Delivery Head
5. Risk
Mitigation must be performed for
1.
High and Medium Risks
2. Only Direct Risks
3.
High Risks
4.
Direct and Indirect Risks
6. What is the applicability of the program management discipline?
1.
Maintenance Projects
2. All the options
3.
Pre sales projects
4.
T&M projects
7. Identify the
activity that will NOT lead to a change request
1.
None of the Options
2.
Client Requirement
3. Code Review
4.
QA Testing
8. What is the
purpose of refactoring the code
1. All the options
2.
Improve Communication
3.
Add Flexibility
4.
Simplify the Code
9. As per GIP, inception review is to take place
1.
By the 10th working day of
the project start
2.
Along with occurrence of the first
milestone
3. There is no fixed time frame for inception
review
4.
Along with the internal kick off
meeting
10. For projects
with large code base, what is the recommended sampling % for work product
audit?
1.
10-15%
2. 25-30%
3.
15-20%
4.
5-10%
11. Which of the
following is FALSE?
1.
Project team can define their own
template for QATP
2.
Project team can define metric specific
to their projects
3.
Project team can define their own
engineering guidelines, provided they are signed off by appropriate stakeholder
4. Project team can choose not to record any
Minutes of Meeting
12. The project
team develops various artifacts throughout the project. Where does the review
plan related to these artifacts documented?
1.
PAD
2. None of the options
3.
Chorus
4.
Review logs
13. What is NOT an input for an Account Delivery Review?
1.
Process Audit Report
2.
Updated Project Schedule
3.
Metrics
4.
Account Status Report
5.
Client Satisfaction Score Card
6. Change Request Log
7.
Project Quality Indicators
14. A task has an
optimistic value of 12 days, pessimistic value of 20 days. What would be its
most likely estimate?
1.
18
2. 16
3.
Unknown
4.
14
15. Suyashis peer reviewing a Developer Test Plan for a user
profile maintenance screen. What would be of LEAST concern to Suyash
1.
Traceability of test cases
2.
Audit Trail requirement
3.
Encryption Requirement
4. Business Continuity Requirement
16. Identify who
is authorized to raise a change request in a
project?
1.
Only Client
2.
Any Project Staff
3.
Change Control Board
4. Project Leadership Team
17. Which of the
following is NOT a data integrity check?
1.
Verifying that the tasks have correct
standard codes
2.
Verifying that defects are categorized
correctly
3. Verifying that the current weeks value is
within the specification limit
4.
Verifying if corresponding rework
effort is entered for defects captured
18. Which of the
following is NOT an INPUT of the conduct client kickoff
activity?
1.
Process Tailoring Record
2.
Project Initiation Note
3.
Project Schedule
4. MoM
19. The delivery
review team was meeting once in a month to review the
Project progress. It has been decided that this meeting will be held on
a Fortnightly basis. Which one of the following is likely to get updated by this decision?
1.
Communication technology
2.
Staffing Management Plan
3.
Issue Logs
4. Communication Management Plan
20. Who is
responsible for verifying closure of all the
configuration audit findings and action points?
1.
Project Manager
2. All the options
3.
Configuration Auditor
4.
Configuration Manager
21. A work product auditor is identified and assigned to a
project in the
1.
None of the options
2.
Monitoring and control stage
3. Initiation stage
4.
Planning stage
22. Tailoring of GIP to project needs is the ownership of
1.
Project Quality Partner
2.
Account Manager
3.
Project Manager
4. Project Manager and Project Quality Partner
23. While
performing code review, the OUTPUT(S) can
be
1.
Defect Log
2.
Change Request
3. Change Request and Defect Log
4.
None of the options
24. What is the GIP recommended time frame for conducting phase/project
closure for the project
1.
Within 2 weeks of completion of the
phase or project
2.
On Baseline of the phase
3. Prior to start of the subsequent phase
4.
As decided by the Project Manager
25. A project
manager is identifying the criteria to select solutions
during design with respect to Technologies, COTS products, Reusable
components and/or Design approaches etc. The project manager is
1.
Selecting alternative
solutions
2. Performing Decision Analysis
3.
Developing a design
4.
Establishing design interfaces
26. What is
normally NOT discussed in an Account Delivery Review
1.
Significant Project Risks
2. Project Account
3.
Receivable status
4. Team Morale
1. What is NOT a purpose
of the Requirements discipline?
1.
To establish and maintain agreement
with the customers and other stakeholders on what the system should do
2.
To provide system developers with a
better understanding of the system requirements
3. To evolve a robust architecture for the
system
4.
To provide a basis for estimating cost
and time to develop the system
2. The requirement discipline is NOT applicable for,
1.
Internal projects
2.
Customer projects
3.
Onsite projects
4.
Pre-sales
activities
3. As per the
roles defined in GIP, “Gather and Analyze Business
Requirements” should be performed by,
1.
System analyst
2.
Business
analyst
3.
Project Manager
4.
Tier 1 or Tier 0 resource
4. Amal is a new member for Virtusa and has
asked to perform system analysis of a starting up project. What document
should he refer to perform this activity?
1.
Business
Requirements document
2. Scope
and Traceability Matrix
3. DSRS
and supporting documents, if any.
4. Business
Requirements Log
5. Mangala is a system analyst assigned to the project Kingfisher and
accountable for the DSRS document. Typically, at which Phase he should initiate the DSRS document?
1. Pre-inception
phase
2.
Inception
phase
3. Elaboration
phase
4. Post-elaboration
phase
6. As per GIP
guidelines, what is NOT included in the DSRS document?
1. Details
of functional requirements and non-functional requirements
2. Success
criteria of the project
3. To
be decided items
4.
Bi-directional
traceability details
7. Who should signoff the DSRS document?
1. A
Signoff is not mandatory
2.
Client
3. Delivery
owner
4. Account
owner
8. Development of
Low level detailed design of the System to be
implemented is part of,
1. Requirement
discipline
2.
Analysis
and design discipline
3. Implementation
discipline
4. Architecture
and design discipline
9. What is NOT correct
with regard to the activity “Perform Architectural
Synthesis”?
1. The
purpose of this is to analyze and define the software architecture based on
architecturally significant requirements.
2. One
of the goals of this is to define the layering and organization of the system
3.
It
is recommended to get the involvement of the entire project team to perform
this activity
4. This
activity is best performed in the inception phase of the project
10.Viki is a technical lead at Virtusa and asked to design use cases for a specific functionality of the system.
He quickly used a one he created for his previous
project and started modifying it. As per GIP guidelines, how do you comment on this?
1. He
is quite smart. GIP always encourage re-use
2. Disaster.
There is a higher vulnerability for mistakes. Should undergo thorough reviews
3.
He
should always refer to the project engineering guidelines document. This is a
clear deviation from GIP
4. This
is alright if the chief architect is fine with this behavior
11 At which phase
the Detailed Software Technical Design should
start?
1. Inception
2.
Elaboration
3. Construction
4. No
recommendations given by GIP
12. Latha, an
engineer, wants to know the file structure for the
project, which will indicate where the sets of
code, unit tests, executables, libraries etc. are to be placed during
implementation. What should she do?
1. She
should have given all instructions prior to her start in the project. She
should be given the kick-off presentation to refer
2. Ask
someone else in the project and get the instructions
3.
Refer
to the DSTD document
4. Refer
to the configuration management document
13. What is NOT correct with regard to the SARB review?
1. SARB
stands for Software Architecture Review Board
2. A
SARB review is conducted to detect any architectural design flaws
3. It
is conducted to detect a potential mismatch between the requirements and the
architecture such as over-design and unrealistic requirements
4.
Project
manager should schedule the review meeting and give prior notice to the SARB
team to reserve their own time for the review
14. Which activity should be done at first in the Implementation
discipline?
1. Plan
the integration
2.
Structure
the implementation model
3. Implement
components
4. Integrate
the system
15. Mala, an engineer is asked to prepare
the developer tests. When should she start the work?
1. As
per the project schedule
2.
As
soon as the design model is defined and
software components that need to be developer tested is identified
3. As
soon as she is thorough with the technology that the developer test is going to
be written
4. It
depends on her bandwidth and other priorities set by the project leadership.
16. What is the purpose of the developer release note?
1. It
gives the client a broad view of the current release
2.
It
provides a snapshot of the features of the current development release to QA
3. It
contains relevant information about the developers
4. It
contains development related metrics and quality indicators
17. What is NOT correct with regard to the IP Usage registry?
1. It
provides a detailed information on the usage of any third party
software/images/design and others that are used in the system
2.
It
should be signed off by the client
3. It
is owned by the Project Manager
4. The
primary audience of the document is the project team and the client
18. An auditor
asked Kamala, a release engineer of a large scale
project, the frequency of performing builds.
The answer suggests that he is not aware of such a plan. Which statement best explains this situation?
1. There
is no role called ‘Release Engineer” defined in GIP. Therefore, this question
is not fair
2. It
is not his responsibility. A build would be performed whenever the developers
are ready
3.
He
should be thoroughly aware of the CM plan and the project engineering
guidelines
4. He
seems be having no idea of how the entire system works
19. The more
minds, more different personalities and life experiences in searching for
error, the more chance you have of catching problems early, before they become
serious and expensive to fix. This phenomena is called,
1. The
Safety Net Effect
2.
The
Sieve Effect
3. The
Blender Effect
4. The
Training Effect
20. What is NOT a purpose of the Configuration
Management discipline?
1. Simultaneous
Update
2. Limited
Notification
3. Multiple
Versions
4.
Multiple
backups
21. CCB stands for,
1.
Change
Control Board
2. Configuration
Control Board
3. Configuration
and Change Board
4. Configuration
Capability Baseline
22. What is not included in the Configuration
Management plan?
1. Configuration
Items
2.
Roles
and Responsibilities of the project team
3. Configuration
Audits and details
4. Release
Management plan
23. Responsibilities of the CM
Auditor includes,
1. Performing
Physical Configuration Audit
2. Performing
Functional Configuration Audits
3. Facilitating
projects in identifying corrective actions for the Non-Conformances (NCs)
identified
4.
All
three of them above
24. What is NOT correct with regard to the CM Plan?
1. CM
Plan describes all CCM activities you will perform during the course of the
product
2. It
provides details about Configuration identification
3.
It
should be signed off by the account owner
4. It
briefly describes releases
25. Which
statement best explain the purpose of the skill gap
analysis document?
1. It
helps to properly estimate the project cost
2. It
is a mechanism to transfer project risks to the higher management
3.
It
helps the project manager to identify the project risks with respect to
resources to anticipate and mitigate them
4. It
helps to determine how the individuals improve their skills and capabilities
over time
26. Which
document is used to describe the chosen process
for the project?
1. Project
approach document
2.
Project
tailoring record
3. Project
schedule
4. Detailed
WBS
27. The primary purpose of Conducting the Client Satisfaction Survey is,
1. To
give an opportunity for the client to express their views about the project deliveries
2. Because
it is a mandatory activity that cannot be tailored out
3.
To
provide Virtusa management and project teams with a view into how clients feel
about the project and team performance
4. To
understand the areas where most problems exists and compensate the team
accordingly
28. What is NOT a purpose
of the Test discipline?
1. Finding
and documenting defects in software
2. Validating
that the requirements have been implemented completely and appropriately
3.
Provide
a framework for managing the activities of the Assurance Group
4. Suggestion
for the process improvement
29. What is NOT a workflow element of the test
discipline
1. Plan
test
2.
Execute
unit test
3. Evaluate
test
4. Automate
test
30. As defined in
GIP, which role is assigned to create test automation scripts?
1. Test
lead
2. Test
analyst
3. Test
engineer
4. Any
role
31. Which GIP artifact contains the test
environment details?
1. Project
approach document
2. Test
design
3.
Test
plan
4. Test
report
32. Who'ssignoff is mandatory for the test cases?
1.
Test analyst
2.
Test
lead
3. Client
4. Signoff is not mandatory
1. Baseline criteria for
a Business Requirement Document is
1. Acceptance
by Project Leadership team
2. Sign off by Client
3.
Acceptance by Delivery Head
4.
Review by Project Leadership team
2. Out of these identify the MOST critical aspect to be recorded
in the Test log against a defect?
1.
Details
for error simulation
2. Defect
Categorization
3. Cause
of the Defect
4. Tester
Details
3. Subhadra is
new to Virtusa. From where can Subhadra find the code
naming conventions to be used in her project?
1.
Configuration Management
Plan
2. Technology Standards
3.
Requirements Management Plan
4.
Configuration Status Report
22.
Which document contains the naming conventions for the
database tables to be used in the project?
1. Detailed
Software Technical Design Document
2.
Project Engineering Guideline
3. Project
Approach Document
4. Technology
Standards at Virtusa
4. What is normally NOT
discussed in an Account Business Review
1.
SARB
Comments
2. Score
Card Trends
3. CDI
4. New
Business Opportunities
5. Sujatha is a
developer and she attended a technical discussion
session with the Onsite / Client Tech Lead. Which Pulse category should she log this effort to?
1.
Virtusa - Admin project (as there is
no Pulse category called technical discussions in the project's pulse
categories)
2.
Implementation - Others (because it is
a meeting)
3. Construction
4.
Project Management (because it is a
meeting)
6. Against what
would a POC be evaluated?
1.
Against acceptance Criteria in Project
Acceptance document
2.
As defined in the Project Approach
Document
3.
Against Criteria in Project
Engineering Guidelines
4. Against identified Architecturally
Significant Requirements
7. With regards to GIP process components, what is NOT a valid relationship
1.
An activity is performed by a role
2.
A role is responsible for an artifact
creation, maintenance and update
3.
Software Engineering Process is
organized into Disciplines
4. An activity refers to a template
8. Identify what
will NOT normally give raise to a change request?
1. Code Change following Unit Testing
2.
Changes to code due to QA review
3.
Changes due to Client requirement
during design review
4.
Requirements Change to SARB review
9. The QATP needs to be approved by
1. Project Manager and Test Analyst
2.
Test Analyst
3.
Client
4.
Project Manager and PQA
10. During
Detailed Design how does one address non functional requirements?
1.
By mapping Design elements to State
Chart Diagram
2. By associating core technical
service to individual class
3.
Through traceability Matrix
4.
By mapping design to PoC
11. Approving Authority
for User Manual is
1.
Business Quality Partner
2.
Delivery Head
3.
Deployment Manager
4. Client
12. Which
artifact holds the list of ”To be Decided"
requirements
1.
Traceability Matrix
2.
Business Requirement
Document
3.
Issue Log
4. Business Requirement Log
13. If the Project Manager prepares the PTR. Who needs to
maintain it?
1.
Account Quality Partner
2.
SEPG
3.
BU Quality Partner
4. Project Manager
14. What is the main
intent of an Engineering Rigor Audit?
1.
To evaluate the ability of the project
team to meet the non-functional requirements
2.
To identify instances in code where
GIP standards have not be followed
3. To evaluate the maturity of engineering
practices within a project
4.
To evaluate the technical skills of
the project team
15. Identify what
will NOT influence the Quality
Plan for a project?
1. None
2.
Audit Summary Results
3.
Feed from other Quality
Partners
4.
Areas of improvements for the project
16. What BEST describes the principle of classification of a nonconformance into Major or a Minor NC?
1.
If there are multiple occurrence of
the same lapse the finding is classified as a Major NC
2.
If the discipline to which it is
attributed is a delivery related discipline, it is a Major NC
3.
Any finding against the performance of
a process (Activity) is classified as a Major NC
4. Classification is based on the potential
risk the lapse can cause to the project's success
17. "Perform
Architectural Analysis and Design" is NOT
required for
1.
Small Enhancement Projects
2. Systems with existing well-defined
architecture
3.
Technology Migration Projects
4.
For Maintenance Projects
18. What is the prescribed
frequency for Account Delivery Review for a Strategic
Account with AHI 5?
1.
Weekly
2.
Once in two months
3. Fortnightly
4.
Monthly
19. All units
have been tested and integration activities have been completed. The team now
prepares the developer release note. Identify the PRIMARY
intent of the Developer Release Notes
1.
Provides insight to the deployment
manager on limitations of the system
2.
Provides the Client an insight into
limitation of the system
3. Provides key information on the current
release to QA
4.
Provides the deployment manger
information about known defects
20. Rework effort index DOES NOT include
1.
Correction to the Design components
2. Re-estimation
3.
Code fixes
4.
Writing the test cases for the
functionality not covered which is identified duringtesting
21. Identify the condition which will NOT normally be tested in a developer testcase?
1.
Boundary Condition
behavior
2.
Coverage Testing
3.
Negative Testing
4.
Stress
Testing
22 . Who should approve
the Project Approach Note (Doc)?
1. Account Owner, as he is the
senior management representative
2. PQA, as he has to facilitate
process implementation
3. Delivery Head, as he is the management
representative
4. Quality Partner, as he is responsible for the
process framework
23. What is the PRIMARY
intent of bidirectional traceability?
1. To
provide inputs for configuration management
2. To
identify features in the deliverable that are aligned to requirements specified
by users
3.
To
identify all requirements are translated into implementation, to verify all
features implemented can be traced to an approved source and traceability
between requirements is maintained for ensuring integrity
4. To
identify features in the deliverable that are not mapped to any user specified
or design driven requirement
24. Which is the Group that is responsible for
maintaining GIP?
1. Project
Leadership
2. Quality
Champions
3.
OCM
4. SPI
Team Lead
25. What does a PCI indicate?
1.
Process
Compliance Index
2. Project Capability Index
3. Process
Capability Index
4. Project Compliance Index
26. Requirements Management Plan
is to be signed off by
1. BU Quality Partner
2. Business
Analyst
3. Change
Control Board
4.
Client
27. As per the GIP guidelines what is the thumb rule for affixing the size of thelowest node in a WBS?
1. The
task should at least be 40 hours of duration
2. The task should not have any dependency
3. The
task should NOT be in the critical path
4.
The
task should result in a measurable deliverable
28. What is NOT a
prerequisite for initiating test at client site?
1. Agreed
upon Test Environment Configuration
2. Availability
of relevant infrastructure
3. Availability
of relevant support software
4.
Automated
Defect tracking mechanism
29. What will NOT be described in a Configuration Management
Plan?
1. Integration
Testing Environment Details
2. UAT Environment Details
3. Development Environment Details
4. Control Test Environment Details
30. What is NOT
normally done during an interim build process?
1. Deployment on test machine
2. Checking
out code from repository
3. Logging build defects
4.
Preparing
build release note
31. What is NOT normally included in a deployment
package?
1.
Review
reports
2. Installation
Manual
3. Operational
Manual
4. User
Manual
32. What is incorrect
about Contract Compliance Checklist?
1. The
minimum prescribed frequency is fortnightly
2. It
is prepared by Project Manager
3. It is published at agreed
interval to the Client
4.
The
process is owned by Account Owner
33. Identify what is NOT an appropriate status during
change approval?
1.
Duplicate
2. Accepted
3. Rejected
4. Hold
34. Sumathy is to lead the QA testing of a
system. Where can she find the
acceptance criteria forthe following
1. Release
Management Plan
2. Project
Approach Document
3. Requirements
Management Plan
4.
QATP
35. What is NOT an accurate statement about the GIP component ROLE?
1. Roles
are NOT individuals but represent how they behave in the businessenvironment
2.
Roles
are restricted to people within the organization
3. A
role is an abstract definition of a set of activities performed and artifacts
owned.
4. Roles
perform activities
36. As per the PTR
template in GIP, what are the Mandatory activities for amaintenance project?
1. Project
Effort Estimate
2. QATP
3. Deployment
Plan
4.
None
of the options
37. Where do you find the list
of Business Objectives of Virtusa?
1. Metrics
Description Document (MDD)
2. Metrics
Profile Document
3. QI
Sheet
4.
Organizational
Objectives Document
38. What is accurate about the activity "Designing of Core Technical Services"?
1.
This
activity involves planning for non-functional requirements
2. This
activity is initiated in the Inception phase
3. This
activity need not maintain DAR
4. This
activity is performed on completion of PoC
1. The scope functionality
traceability matrix holds which
of the followinginformation
A. Active requirement
B. Requirement dropped
C. Approved changes to
Requirement
D. Reject changes
1. C
and D
2. A,
C and D
3.
A,
B and C
4. A and B
2. What will not be
normally discussed in a team kick off meeting?
1. Acceptance Criteria
2. Project
Overview
3. Project
Vision
4.
Detailed
Project WBS
3. When the project
risks should be identified and managed?
1. On
milestone completion
2. Construction
Phase
3.
Throughout
the project
4. Transition
Phase
4. Of the given below, identify which will be considered in preparation of Quality Plan for PQA activities?
1. Consolidated
reports for improvements areas in implementation rigor
2. Areas
of improvement as identified by senior management
3. Audit
summary results
4.
All
the options
5. Identify what is NOT intent of the Assurance Discipline
1. To
provide early indicators with regards to process risks
2. Provide support to Project Leadership
3. Facilitate
process Implementation
4.
To
define organizational processes
6. On development and maintenance
projects, Quality Effort Index DOES NOT include
1. Estimation effort
2. System
testing effort
3. Code review effort
4.
Coding
effort
6. What is the primary intent of an
architectural POC?
1. Evaluate effort involved in system realization
2.
Prove
feasibility of the system to architecturally significant requirements
3. To
explorer the best option for the system design
4. To
identify major risks in designing of the system
7. A SARB review will be LEAST concerned with:
1. Performance
2. Scalability
3. Adherence
to Requirement
4.
Requirement
Detailing
8. Who is authorized to “Close” an
implemented CR?
1. Owner
of the Change Request
2. Configuration
Manager
3.
Member
of the CCB
4. Project Manager
9. What is ‘workload
analysis’ used for?
1. Arriving
at acceptance criteria
2.
Arriving
at the framework for performance testing
3. Arriving
at database size
4. Arriving
at leveling of work allocated to team members
10. Identify what is NOT an
input for “Planning the Integration”
1. Implementation
Model
2. Approved
Change Request
3. Project Engineering Guideline
4.
Developer
Release Notes
11. Requirement Management Plan is to be signed off by
1. Business
Analyst
2. Change
Control Board
3.
Client
4. BU Quality Partner
12. Identify the situation which mandates a formal Decision Analysis and Resolution Process
1. Approving Change Implementation
2. Deciding
Mitigation
3.
Evaluation
of Tools
4. Closure
of review comments
13. What will NOT usually be included in a Deployment
Plan?
1. Training requirements for End Users
2. Process of Remediation
3.
Key
Software Features
4. Time
Lines related to deployment
14.
What is normally not included in a Deployment
package?
1. Installation
Manual
2.
Review
Reports
3. User
Manual
4. Operations
manual
15. The assertion that is true in its completeness with respect to work product
audit
1.
Project Manager provides waiver in case of
non-closure of findings
2.
As
DSTD is subjected to SARB review, work product review is optional
3.
Review
of artifacts by the process consultant is considered as work product review
4. Every
work product needs to be audited at least once
16. When should the project
risks be identified and managed?
1.
Throughout
the project
2. Construction
Phase
3. On
milestone completion
4. Transition
Phase
17. Activity creates
the scope and traceability matrix
1. Perform
system analysis
2. Handle changes
3.
Manage
requirements
4. Develop Plan
18. What does ETVX
imply in terms of a process description?
1.
Entry
Task Verification and Exit
2. Explore
Task Verify and Explain
3. Entry
Task Version and Example
4. Explore Task Verify and Explain
1. According to
GIP, there are ______ number of severity levels assigned to defects
1.
2 3
2.
3 4
3.
4 5
4.
5 6
2.
Where is the reuse area(s) identified for a project?
1. QATP
and Reuse database
2. QATP
3. Reuse
database
4.
Project Approach Document
3.
As per the PTR template in GIP, what are the Mandatory
activity for a maintenance project?
1.
Project Effort Estimate
2. None
of the options
3. Deployment
Plan
4. QATP
4.
Success of the acceptance test is PRIMARILY dependent on
1. Good
Supporting documentation
2. Well
trained user community
3.
Baseline Acceptance Plan
4. Strong
deployment Manager
5.Contract compliance conducted by
1.
Account owner
3. PM
4. Delivery
head
6.
Identify the statement that is NOT true with respect to GIP recommendation for
RCA
1. At
least one RCA meeting is recommended in the "construction" phase
2. In
Development projects, it is recommended that Root Cause Analysis be performed
at least once before the Construction Phase
3. At
least one meeting per month is recommended for all kinds of projects.
4. For Maintenance Project RCA is not required
7.
InAccount Delivery meeting, which one of the following is not discussed
1. Client Satisfaction
2. Acct
review status
3. Team
Score Card
4. Project
Risks (I gave this option)
8.
Where can one find the information with
regards to Testing Standards and Defect Management guidelines?
1. Project
Initiation Document
2. Quality
Assurance Plan
3. Project Engineering Guidelines
4. Business Requirement Specification
9.
What can BEST describe the relationship
of Program Management discipline to Project Management?
1. Program Management is Project Management on
larger scope
2. Program Management is Project Management when
applied to large projects
3. Program Management Supports Project Management
4. Program Management Oversees
Project Management
10.
What is of LEAST priority while designing QATP test cases
1. Requirement
Validation
2. Boundary
Value Analysis
3. UI
validation
4. Performance Analysis
11.
Sumathy is performing a Code Review of Surjit's work. What would be of LEAST Consideration
1. Readability
2. Error
Handling routines
3. Coding Effort
4. Simplicity
12.
A PM is regularly tracking the work performed through planned reviews as stated
in the Project Approach Document. The PM also ensures regular customer
reporting on the work performed. Which activity is the PM performing?
1. Initiate
Project
2. Execute
project
3. Monitor Project Status
4. Project
Closure
13.
Your project receives requirements from the client. As a part of understanding
of those requirements you or the project team seek clarifications for
doubts/queries on the requirements. Which of the following is applicable?
1. Develop Q&A document
2. Develop
BRS (Business Requirement Specification)
3. Develop
DSRS (Detail Software Requirement Specification)
4. Tailor
out BRS and DSRS from PTR
14.
Risk tracking during project execution is done using:
1. All
of the options
2. Risk
database
3.
Project risk list
4. Risk
Management Plan
15. What is the source of
CI for configuration audits?
1.
As contained in the project configuration repository
2. As
submitted by the team members
3. Source
used in prior internal audit
4. As
indicated by the Project Manager
16.
A project manager is reviewing risks and issues in
a project in one of the status reviews. Which activity is he performing and in which project
management phase
1. Manage
communication, Plan the Project
2. Manage
Risks and Issues, Execute the Project
3. Manage
risks, Initiate project
4.
Manage Risks and Issues, Project Monitoring and control
17.
The final product to be validated is identified
and recorded in
1. PTW
2. QATC
3. QATP
4. PAD
18.
A configuration management plan will provide for
all information BUT
1. Change Management policies and directives
2.
Details of change requests
3. CCB
authorities
4. Configuration
audit schedule
19.
Suyash is the Project Manager. His project contains a large code base. He is
selecting the codes that would be subjected to code review. Which is the BEST method for selecting the candidate codes?
1.
Codes which pose a significant risk on not getting reviewed
2. At
least one code per module
3. At
least one code per category (maintenance/report etc)
4. At
least one code per developer
20.
The Team kickoff Meeting:
1. Can
be tailored if Client Kickoff is conducted
2. Is
not mandatory for testing projects
3. Is
not mandatory for development projects
4.
Is mandatory for all projects
21.
A project has just developed a Requirement review log along with a Business requirement
document. Which activity has been
performed?
1. Manage requirements
2. Gather and analyze business
requirements
3. None
of the options
4. Perform
system analysis
23.
Identify the artifact that is NOT an input for project initiation
1.
Project Tailoring Record
2.
Project Initiation Note
3.
Presales Documents
4.
Skill Gap Analysis Report
24.
All units have been tested and integration activities have been completed. The
team now prepares the developer
release note. Identify the PRIMARY intent of the
Developer Release Notes.
1.
Provides key information on the current release to QA
2. Provides the deployment manger information
about known defects
3. Provides insight to the deployment manager on
limitations of the system
4. Provides the Client an insight into
limitation of the system
25.
Identify the PRIMARY benefit of a DAR process
1.
Provides Compliance to CMMI requirement
2.
Demonstrates thought leadership
3.
Helps justify costs
4.
Provides a framework for option
analysis and removes bias
26.
Decision Analysis and Resolution is a MUST HAVE activity in which phase
1. All
Phases
2. Transition
3. Elaboration
4. Construction
27.
What is the SRC of
CI for Performing Product Audit
1. PM
Provides
2. Process Person provides
3.
Found in Configuration Project Repository
4. Taken
from Similar project
28.
Identify what is NOT tracked normally as a part of Project Status Reviews
1. Work
Completion
2. Risks and Issues
3.
Team Score Card
4. Variation of effort and schedule
29.
Identify the activity FIRST leads to the creation of
Scope-Traceability Matrix
1. Handle
Changes
2. Manage
Requirements
3. Develop
Plan
4.
Perform System Analysis
30.
Identify the approving authority for a PTR
1. PQA
2. Delivery
Head
3.
Account Owner
4. Business
Quality Partner
31.
When is the developer test case BEST written?
1. Before
unit testing
2. Before
Coding of the Unit
3.
On completion of detailed design
4. As
planned in the project schedule
32.
The Engineering Rigor Plan document will contain
1. Findings
2. Root
cause analysis
3. Plans
to bridge the gaps
4.
Tracking
notes of progress
33. Identify what is NOT an
activity of the Process Management Discipline
1. Monitor
Project Audit Results
2.
Deploy
Process
3. Establish
Process Performance Model
4. Monitor
and Control SPI
34. The status "living"
is assigned to a document. what does it mean?
1. Project
management documents
2.
Document
that is changed throughout the life cycle
3. Document
which is created and ready to review and enhance
4. Process
documents
35.
What is primary benefit of DAR (Design Analysis and Review)?
36.
Suyash is new to Virtusa, where he can get the change
requests
1.
Change
Request log,
2. Project
approach plan
37.
PM recognizes there is a training
required for the resources…..What could have done to avoid client
dissatisfaction?
1. Training
to employees before dev phase
5. Skill
assessment approach during devphase(During Inception Phase)
38.
PM will get requirements and map it. What is the doc name?
1. Scope and
Traceability matrix
2. BRS
3. process
management
39.
Defect density is high then which is not true
1. Size of
project grows
